image

Disaster Management

05 Jan, 2022

1. Which type fire extinguisher is suitable for Electrical Fire?

A. CO2

B. Halon

C. Water type

D. None

 

2. A fire bucket holds ……… litres of water.

A. 10

B. 08

C. 09

D. 07

 

3. The most essential elements for combustion are Heat, Fuel, . . . . . . . . . . . .

A. Gas

B. Firewood

C. CO2

D. Oxygen

 

4. CO2 Fire extinguisher is mainly used for…………

A. Gas Fire

B. Oil Fire

C. Electrical Fire

D. Metal fire

 

5. Role of RPF at the accident spot is mentioned in Standing Order No……. .

A. 24

B. 42

C. 84

D. 34

 

6. …. . is considered as father of Explosives.

A. Mr. Rober J. Dikson

B. Sir. Alfred Nobel

C. Mr. Roger Becon

D. Mr. Pentrite

 

7. Expand I. E. D.

A. Important Electrical Device

B. Improved Explosive Detonator

C. Improvised Explosive Device

D. Improved Electronic Device

 

8. Expand RDX.

A. Railway Detecting Explosive

B. Regional Development Explosive

C. Research Development X-Ray

D. Research Development Explosive

 

9. Types of Detonators.

A. 01

B. 02

C. 03

D. 04

 

10. Release switch comes under which mechanism?

A. Command

B. Delay

C. Anti-Handling

D. Ambient

 

11. Train passing signal at danger without proper authority and accident does not actually take place is an . . . .

A. Disaster

B. Indicative Accident

C. Consequential accident

D. None

 

12. ………… equipment is used by Bomb Detection and Disposal Squad.

A. Hhmd

B. Dfmd

C. Prodder

D. All the above.

 

13. No. 36 HE Hand Grenade is a . . . . . . . . . Impact Grenade.

A. Low

B. Medium

C. High

D. None

 

14. Land mine type of IED frequently used by. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

A. RPF

B. Police

C. Maoist

D. Air force.

 

15. Which fire extinguisher is suitable for flammable gas fire?

A. Soda acid

B. Water type

C. Foam type

D. DCP

 

16. ………. Branch is not functioning in RPF.

A. Executive

B. CIB

C. SIB

D. Fire Service

 

17. Dividing breaching is used for the purpose of dividing one line hose into ………. . lines.

A. 02

B. 03

C. 04

D. 06

 

18. Sabotage is punishable under section ……. of the Railwys Act

A. 150

B. 151

C. 152

D. 153

 

19. Disaster incidents are caused due to . . . . . . . . . . causes.

A. Manmade

B. Natural

C. Both a & b

D. None.

 

20. ‘C’ class fire means ……………….

A. Metal fire

B. Electrical fire

C. Liquid fire

D. Gas fire

 

21. Expand LPG-

A. Liquid paraffin gas

B. Liquefied petroleum gas

C. Liquid propane gas

D. Liquid pentane Gas

 

22. L. P. G contains …………… and …………… Gases.

A. Propane & butane

B. Propane & pentane

C. Butane & carbon

D. Carbon & hexane

 

23. Fire hazards are classified into ………. . Nos of categories.

A. 05

B. 04

C. 07

D. 08

 

24. DCP Fire Extinguisher inner portion contains ……. . Gas cartridge.

A. DCP

B. Water

C. Co2

D. Petrol

 

25. Cutting of air supply is known as ……………. Method.

A. Smothering

B. Cooling

C. Starvation

D. combustion

 

26. Removal of combustible materials around fire is known as-

A. Smothering

B. Cooling

C. Starvation

D. Combustion

 

27. Dry Chemical Powder Fire extinguisher is most suitable for ----------------- fire.

A. All class

B. Ordinary only

C. Electronic only

D. Metal only

 

28. Collision (including side collisions) comes under the classification of

A. Consequential accidents

B. Indicative accidents

C. Both a & b

D. Influential accidents

 

29. Fire in trains can be termed as Consequential accidents

(True or False)

 

30. Level crossing accidents not termed as Consequential accidents

(True or False)

 

31. Expand A. R. T

A. Accident relief train

B. Accident rushing train

C. Average recorded temperature

D. Accident Relief Team

 

32. Gross weight of Electric Detonator is . . . . …

A. 1 gm

B. 2 gms

C. 10 gms

D. 20 gms

 

33. Cordite is a ………. Explosive

A. High

B. Medium

C. Low

D. Pyrotecnique

 

34. TNT is a ………. Explosive

A. High

B. Medium

C. Low

D. Pyrotecnique

 

35. PEK means

A. Plastic explosive kirkee

B. Partial explosive kirkee

C. Power explosive kirkee

D. Pressure explosive kirkee

 

36. How many types of switch mechanisms are there……

A. 02

B. 03

C. 04

D. 01

 

37. Pressure switch is a type of ……. Mechanism

A. Anti- handling

B. Delay

C. Command

D. Ambient

 

38. Light sensor is a ……type of mechanism.

A. Anti- handling

B. Delay

C. Command

D. Ambient

 

39. Velocity of gun powder, on explosion is …….

A. 500 m/s

B. 550 m/s

C. 600 m/s

D. 800 m/s

 

40. BDDS equipments are classified into …. . types

A. 02

B. 04

C. 03

D. 01

 

41. As per which para of Railway Accidents manual clarifies the role of RPF in case of Railway accident.

A. 607

B. 507

C. 407

D. None

 

42. Sabotage is punishable under which section of Railways Act?

A. 150

B. 152

C. 153

D. 156

 

43. The high level committee on Disaster Management recommended under recommendation No. ____ to set up a Disaster management team of RPF.

A. 36

B. 56

C. 46

D. 66

 

44. Endangering safety to the passenger travelling in railways due to negligence is punishable under which section of Railways Act ?

A. 151

B. 152

C. 153

D. 154

 

45. When a Train accident takes place as a result passengers sustained injuries and mail line obstructed how many time hooters to be sounded?

A. 3 long

B. 3 long and 1 short

C. 4 long

D. 4 long and 1 short

 

46. NDMA stands for _______________

A. National disaster management authority

B. National doctors & medical association

C. Narcotics drugs & management activities

D. None of the above

 

47. When any accidents occurs involving goods train, which one will start first to accidents site?

A. MRV

B. ART

C. Packing machine

D. None

 

48. In which activity an intention to cause willful damage to public life and property exists.

A. Sabotage

B. Chemical explosion

C. Accidents

D. None

 

49. Causes of accident in Indian Railways?

A. Human error

B. Failure of signals

C. Natural calamities

D. All of the above

 

50. Non observance of laid down rules in working of Railways will lead to _________.

A. Sabotage

B. Blast

C. Accidents

D. None

 

51. Removal of Fish plates /blasting of Railway track is an example of __________ .

A. Sabotage

B. Blast

C. Accidents

D. None

 

52. The ingredients of fire include _______________ .

A. Oxygen

B. Combustible materials

C. Heat

D. All of the above

 

53. A person bitten by dog likely to be suffers from which disease?

A. Rabies

B. HIV

C. Cancer

D. None

 

54. In the starvation method of extinguishing fire, supply of _____ is stopped.

A. Heat

B. Air

C. Fuel

D. None

 

55. In the Smothering method of extinguishing fire, supply of ______ is stopped.

A. Heat

B. Oxygen

C. Fuel

D. None

 

56. In the cooling method of extinguishing fire supply of ______ is stopped

A. Heat

B. Oxygen

C. Fuel

D. None

 

57. DCP stands for _________ Fire Extinguisher.

A. Dry chemical powder

B. Duty card pass

C. Daily crime post

D. None

 

58. Expand TNT___________ .

A. Tri Nitro toluene

B. Tetra Nitro Text

C. Triple Nasal Tool

D. None

 

59. C-Class of combustible material includes ___.

A. Solid

B. Liquid

C. Natural Gas

D. None

 

60. Clotting of blood takes place due to the presence of which Vitamin in the blood?

A. A

B. B

C. D

D. K

 

61. Non supply of blood to the heart leads to______.

A. Paralysis

B. Blood Cancer

C. Heart Attack

D. None

 

62. In ABC method of First Aid ‘C’ stands for _____.

A. Central

B. Circulation

C. Circuit

D. None

 

63. D-Class of combustible material includes ___

A. Solid

B. Liquid

C. Natural Gas

D. None

 

64. RDX was invented by ___________ .

A. Kenning

B. Henning

C. Hook

D. None

 

65. Who invented Dynamite?

A. Kenning

B. Henning

C. Alfred Nobel

D. None

 

66. Gun powder is invented by whom?

A. Roger bacon

B. William brickford

C. Hook

D. None

 

67. Which of the following is Low Explosive?

A. RDX

B. Petn

C. TNT

D. Gun powder

 

68. In disease ‘AIDS’, S stand For______.

A. System

B. Sex

C. Syndrome

D. None

 

69. RDX, TNT, are examples of _______.

A. Low explosive

B. High explosive

C. Booth

D. None

 

70. The human ear can generally hear sounds with frequency between______.

A. 5 Hz- 5 khz

B. 10 Hz- 10 khz

C. 20Hz-20khz

D. None

 

71. In the Explosive ‘PEK’ P stands for what?

A. Plastic

B. Power

C. Powder

D. None

 

72. HMX stands for ______.

A. High melting explosive

B. Helium melting explosive

C. High methane explosive

D. Helium Methane Explosive

 

73. Which type of fire extinguisher is used for A-Type fire?

A. DCP

B. Foam type

C. Water type

D. None

 

74. Night blindness Disease caused by the deficiency of which vitamin?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

75. How many bones are there in adult human body.

A. 200

B. 206

C. 210

D. 211

 

76. Putting of Sand bags around the Bomb is called _______.

A. Baffling

B. Buttressing

C. Venting

D. Bag barrier

 

77. Putting of bomb suppression blankets over the sand bags covering the bomb is called _______.

A. Baffling

B. Buttressing

C. Battering

D. Blanketing

 

78. Bomb disposal techniques RSP stands for _________.

A. Rare security person

B. Rendering safe procedure

C. Restoration of safety precaution

D. None of the above

 

79. Dogs can smell ______ more than that of human beings.

A. 5 times

B. 10 times

C. 20 times

D. 40 times

 

80. Which of the following related to Low Explosive effect .

A. Pushing

B. Lifting

C. Propelling

D. All of the above

 

81. A fracture in which bone fragments separate completely is Known as ______.

A. Complete fracture

B. Incomplete fracture

C. Linear fracture

D. Spiral fracture

 

82. The average adult has a pulse rate of _________ .

A. 60

B. 72

C. 80

83. An average adult has blood volume of _________ liters in the body.

A. 5

B. 10

C. 20

D. None

 

84. HIV spreads in human body due to .

A. Unsafe sex

B. Smoking

C. Drinking

D. None

 

85. Swine flue caused by which virus ?

A. H1n1

B. H1 n6

C. H1 n 5

D. None

 

86. Liver Sirohsis cause due to _______.

A. Smoking

B. Drinking

C. Both

D. None

 

87. ABC method of first aid A-stands _______________.

A. Aeration

B. Airway

C. Admission

D. Affection

 

88. During poisoning the body of the victim becomes _________ colour.

A. Bluish

B. Reddish

C. Yellowish

D. Pale

 

89. Expand NDRF

A. National disaster relief fund

B. National disaster research foundation

C. National disaster response force

D. National disaster Rescue Force

 

90. In SPART, SP refers to

A. Superintendent of Police

B. Super Propelling

C. Super Power

D. Self propelled

 

91. Disaster Management Team of RPF on each division of Indian Railways comprises about ___ men in different ranks.

A. 10 men

B. 15 men

C. 20 men

D. 25 men

 

92. Disaster Management Act is enacted in the year_______

A. 2000

B. 2005

C. 2010

D. 2015

 

93. Expand ARME-

A. Army Reserve medical equipment

B. Armed reserve medical equipment

C. Accident rescue medical equipment

D. Accident relief Medical Equipment

 

94. Expand IAT.

A. Instant action troop

B. Immediate action team

C. Instant action team

D. Immediate Action Troop

 

95. Expand DRT-

A. Disaster rescue team

B. Disaster relief train

C. Disaster rescue train

D. Disaster relief Team

 

96. Golden Hour is normally…… hour from the time of accident to the time of rendering definite medical care.

A. ½ hour

B. 1 hour

C. 1 ½ hours

D. 2 hours

 

97. Site manager is the .. .. . . . available at the accident site on arrival of ART

A. DRM

B. DSC

C. DSTE

D. Senior Most Officer

 

98. Disaster Monitoring Cell is functioning at-

A. Divisional level

B. Sub-divisional level

C. Zonal level

D. Supervising Level

 

99. CPR is

A. Cardiac pulmonary resurrection

B. Cardiac preliminary restriction

C. Cardio pulmonary resuscitation

D. Cardio preliminary Resurrection.

 

100. Mock drill related to train accident is conducted to check the preparedness of all branches of Railway-

A. Of all branches of Railway immediately after a train accident at accident spot.

B. Of Senior officers only in a meeting hall.

C. Under hypothetical or imaginative situation at any railway area like Railway track, Railway Bridges, Railway premises, Railway yard etc.

D. None of the above.

 

* * * * *

Question No - Key

 

1 A 51 A

2 C 52 D

3 D 53 A

4 C 54 C

5 D 55 B

6 B 56 A

7 C 57 A

8 D 58 A

9 B 59 C

10 C 60 D

11 B 61 C

12 D 62 B

13 C 63 D

14 C 64 B

15 D 65 C

16 D 66 A

17 A 67 D

18 A 68 C

19 C 69 B

20 D 70 C

21 B 71 A

22 A 72 A

23 A 73 C

24 C 74 A

25 A 75 b

26 C 76 B

27 A 77 A

28 A 78 B

29 T 79 D

30 F 80 D

31 A 81 A

32 A 82 B

33 C 83 A

34 A 84 A

35 A 85 A

36 C 86 C

37 A 87 B

38 D 88 A

39 A 89 C

40 B 90 D

41 A 91 B

42 A 92 B

43 C 93 D

44 D  94 C

45 D 95 A

46 A 96 B

47 B 97 D

48 A 98 C

49 D 99 B

50 C 100 C

*****