05 Jan, 2022
1. Which type fire extinguisher is suitable for Electrical Fire?
A. CO2
B. Halon
C. Water type
D. None
2. A fire bucket holds ……… litres of water.
A. 10
B. 08
C. 09
D. 07
3. The most essential elements for combustion are Heat, Fuel, . . . . . . . . . . . .
A. Gas
B. Firewood
C. CO2
D. Oxygen
4. CO2 Fire extinguisher is mainly used for…………
A. Gas Fire
B. Oil Fire
C. Electrical Fire
D. Metal fire
5. Role of RPF at the accident spot is mentioned in Standing Order No……. .
A. 24
B. 42
C. 84
D. 34
6. …. . is considered as father of Explosives.
A. Mr. Rober J. Dikson
B. Sir. Alfred Nobel
C. Mr. Roger Becon
D. Mr. Pentrite
7. Expand I. E. D.
A. Important Electrical Device
B. Improved Explosive Detonator
C. Improvised Explosive Device
D. Improved Electronic Device
8. Expand RDX.
A. Railway Detecting Explosive
B. Regional Development Explosive
C. Research Development X-Ray
D. Research Development Explosive
9. Types of Detonators.
A. 01
B. 02
C. 03
D. 04
10. Release switch comes under which mechanism?
A. Command
B. Delay
C. Anti-Handling
D. Ambient
11. Train passing signal at danger without proper authority and accident does not actually take place is an . . . .
A. Disaster
B. Indicative Accident
C. Consequential accident
D. None
12. ………… equipment is used by Bomb Detection and Disposal Squad.
A. Hhmd
B. Dfmd
C. Prodder
D. All the above.
13. No. 36 HE Hand Grenade is a . . . . . . . . . Impact Grenade.
A. Low
B. Medium
C. High
D. None
14. Land mine type of IED frequently used by. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
A. RPF
B. Police
C. Maoist
D. Air force.
15. Which fire extinguisher is suitable for flammable gas fire?
A. Soda acid
B. Water type
C. Foam type
D. DCP
16. ………. Branch is not functioning in RPF.
A. Executive
B. CIB
C. SIB
D. Fire Service
17. Dividing breaching is used for the purpose of dividing one line hose into ………. . lines.
A. 02
B. 03
C. 04
D. 06
18. Sabotage is punishable under section ……. of the Railwys Act
A. 150
B. 151
C. 152
D. 153
19. Disaster incidents are caused due to . . . . . . . . . . causes.
A. Manmade
B. Natural
C. Both a & b
D. None.
20. ‘C’ class fire means ……………….
A. Metal fire
B. Electrical fire
C. Liquid fire
D. Gas fire
21. Expand LPG-
A. Liquid paraffin gas
B. Liquefied petroleum gas
C. Liquid propane gas
D. Liquid pentane Gas
22. L. P. G contains …………… and …………… Gases.
A. Propane & butane
B. Propane & pentane
C. Butane & carbon
D. Carbon & hexane
23. Fire hazards are classified into ………. . Nos of categories.
A. 05
B. 04
C. 07
D. 08
24. DCP Fire Extinguisher inner portion contains ……. . Gas cartridge.
A. DCP
B. Water
C. Co2
D. Petrol
25. Cutting of air supply is known as ……………. Method.
A. Smothering
B. Cooling
C. Starvation
D. combustion
26. Removal of combustible materials around fire is known as-
A. Smothering
B. Cooling
C. Starvation
D. Combustion
27. Dry Chemical Powder Fire extinguisher is most suitable for ----------------- fire.
A. All class
B. Ordinary only
C. Electronic only
D. Metal only
28. Collision (including side collisions) comes under the classification of
A. Consequential accidents
B. Indicative accidents
C. Both a & b
D. Influential accidents
29. Fire in trains can be termed as Consequential accidents
(True or False)
30. Level crossing accidents not termed as Consequential accidents
(True or False)
31. Expand A. R. T
A. Accident relief train
B. Accident rushing train
C. Average recorded temperature
D. Accident Relief Team
32. Gross weight of Electric Detonator is . . . . …
A. 1 gm
B. 2 gms
C. 10 gms
D. 20 gms
33. Cordite is a ………. Explosive
A. High
B. Medium
C. Low
D. Pyrotecnique
34. TNT is a ………. Explosive
A. High
B. Medium
C. Low
D. Pyrotecnique
35. PEK means
A. Plastic explosive kirkee
B. Partial explosive kirkee
C. Power explosive kirkee
D. Pressure explosive kirkee
36. How many types of switch mechanisms are there……
A. 02
B. 03
C. 04
D. 01
37. Pressure switch is a type of ……. Mechanism
A. Anti- handling
B. Delay
C. Command
D. Ambient
38. Light sensor is a ……type of mechanism.
A. Anti- handling
B. Delay
C. Command
D. Ambient
39. Velocity of gun powder, on explosion is …….
A. 500 m/s
B. 550 m/s
C. 600 m/s
D. 800 m/s
40. BDDS equipments are classified into …. . types
A. 02
B. 04
C. 03
D. 01
41. As per which para of Railway Accidents manual clarifies the role of RPF in case of Railway accident.
A. 607
B. 507
C. 407
D. None
42. Sabotage is punishable under which section of Railways Act?
A. 150
B. 152
C. 153
D. 156
43. The high level committee on Disaster Management recommended under recommendation No. ____ to set up a Disaster management team of RPF.
A. 36
B. 56
C. 46
D. 66
44. Endangering safety to the passenger travelling in railways due to negligence is punishable under which section of Railways Act ?
A. 151
B. 152
C. 153
D. 154
45. When a Train accident takes place as a result passengers sustained injuries and mail line obstructed how many time hooters to be sounded?
A. 3 long
B. 3 long and 1 short
C. 4 long
D. 4 long and 1 short
46. NDMA stands for _______________
A. National disaster management authority
B. National doctors & medical association
C. Narcotics drugs & management activities
D. None of the above
47. When any accidents occurs involving goods train, which one will start first to accidents site?
A. MRV
B. ART
C. Packing machine
D. None
48. In which activity an intention to cause willful damage to public life and property exists.
A. Sabotage
B. Chemical explosion
C. Accidents
D. None
49. Causes of accident in Indian Railways?
A. Human error
B. Failure of signals
C. Natural calamities
D. All of the above
50. Non observance of laid down rules in working of Railways will lead to _________.
A. Sabotage
B. Blast
C. Accidents
D. None
51. Removal of Fish plates /blasting of Railway track is an example of __________ .
A. Sabotage
B. Blast
C. Accidents
D. None
52. The ingredients of fire include _______________ .
A. Oxygen
B. Combustible materials
C. Heat
D. All of the above
53. A person bitten by dog likely to be suffers from which disease?
A. Rabies
B. HIV
C. Cancer
D. None
54. In the starvation method of extinguishing fire, supply of _____ is stopped.
A. Heat
B. Air
C. Fuel
D. None
55. In the Smothering method of extinguishing fire, supply of ______ is stopped.
A. Heat
B. Oxygen
C. Fuel
D. None
56. In the cooling method of extinguishing fire supply of ______ is stopped
A. Heat
B. Oxygen
C. Fuel
D. None
57. DCP stands for _________ Fire Extinguisher.
A. Dry chemical powder
B. Duty card pass
C. Daily crime post
D. None
58. Expand TNT___________ .
A. Tri Nitro toluene
B. Tetra Nitro Text
C. Triple Nasal Tool
D. None
59. C-Class of combustible material includes ___.
A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Natural Gas
D. None
60. Clotting of blood takes place due to the presence of which Vitamin in the blood?
A. A
B. B
C. D
D. K
61. Non supply of blood to the heart leads to______.
A. Paralysis
B. Blood Cancer
C. Heart Attack
D. None
62. In ABC method of First Aid ‘C’ stands for _____.
A. Central
B. Circulation
C. Circuit
D. None
63. D-Class of combustible material includes ___
A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Natural Gas
D. None
64. RDX was invented by ___________ .
A. Kenning
B. Henning
C. Hook
D. None
65. Who invented Dynamite?
A. Kenning
B. Henning
C. Alfred Nobel
D. None
66. Gun powder is invented by whom?
A. Roger bacon
B. William brickford
C. Hook
D. None
67. Which of the following is Low Explosive?
A. RDX
B. Petn
C. TNT
D. Gun powder
68. In disease ‘AIDS’, S stand For______.
A. System
B. Sex
C. Syndrome
D. None
69. RDX, TNT, are examples of _______.
A. Low explosive
B. High explosive
C. Booth
D. None
70. The human ear can generally hear sounds with frequency between______.
A. 5 Hz- 5 khz
B. 10 Hz- 10 khz
C. 20Hz-20khz
D. None
71. In the Explosive ‘PEK’ P stands for what?
A. Plastic
B. Power
C. Powder
D. None
72. HMX stands for ______.
A. High melting explosive
B. Helium melting explosive
C. High methane explosive
D. Helium Methane Explosive
73. Which type of fire extinguisher is used for A-Type fire?
A. DCP
B. Foam type
C. Water type
D. None
74. Night blindness Disease caused by the deficiency of which vitamin?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
75. How many bones are there in adult human body.
A. 200
B. 206
C. 210
D. 211
76. Putting of Sand bags around the Bomb is called _______.
A. Baffling
B. Buttressing
C. Venting
D. Bag barrier
77. Putting of bomb suppression blankets over the sand bags covering the bomb is called _______.
A. Baffling
B. Buttressing
C. Battering
D. Blanketing
78. Bomb disposal techniques RSP stands for _________.
A. Rare security person
B. Rendering safe procedure
C. Restoration of safety precaution
D. None of the above
79. Dogs can smell ______ more than that of human beings.
A. 5 times
B. 10 times
C. 20 times
D. 40 times
80. Which of the following related to Low Explosive effect .
A. Pushing
B. Lifting
C. Propelling
D. All of the above
81. A fracture in which bone fragments separate completely is Known as ______.
A. Complete fracture
B. Incomplete fracture
C. Linear fracture
D. Spiral fracture
82. The average adult has a pulse rate of _________ .
A. 60
B. 72
C. 80
83. An average adult has blood volume of _________ liters in the body.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. None
84. HIV spreads in human body due to .
A. Unsafe sex
B. Smoking
C. Drinking
D. None
85. Swine flue caused by which virus ?
A. H1n1
B. H1 n6
C. H1 n 5
D. None
86. Liver Sirohsis cause due to _______.
A. Smoking
B. Drinking
C. Both
D. None
87. ABC method of first aid A-stands _______________.
A. Aeration
B. Airway
C. Admission
D. Affection
88. During poisoning the body of the victim becomes _________ colour.
A. Bluish
B. Reddish
C. Yellowish
D. Pale
89. Expand NDRF
A. National disaster relief fund
B. National disaster research foundation
C. National disaster response force
D. National disaster Rescue Force
90. In SPART, SP refers to
A. Superintendent of Police
B. Super Propelling
C. Super Power
D. Self propelled
91. Disaster Management Team of RPF on each division of Indian Railways comprises about ___ men in different ranks.
A. 10 men
B. 15 men
C. 20 men
D. 25 men
92. Disaster Management Act is enacted in the year_______
A. 2000
B. 2005
C. 2010
D. 2015
93. Expand ARME-
A. Army Reserve medical equipment
B. Armed reserve medical equipment
C. Accident rescue medical equipment
D. Accident relief Medical Equipment
94. Expand IAT.
A. Instant action troop
B. Immediate action team
C. Instant action team
D. Immediate Action Troop
95. Expand DRT-
A. Disaster rescue team
B. Disaster relief train
C. Disaster rescue train
D. Disaster relief Team
96. Golden Hour is normally…… hour from the time of accident to the time of rendering definite medical care.
A. ½ hour
B. 1 hour
C. 1 ½ hours
D. 2 hours
97. Site manager is the .. .. . . . available at the accident site on arrival of ART
A. DRM
B. DSC
C. DSTE
D. Senior Most Officer
98. Disaster Monitoring Cell is functioning at-
A. Divisional level
B. Sub-divisional level
C. Zonal level
D. Supervising Level
99. CPR is
A. Cardiac pulmonary resurrection
B. Cardiac preliminary restriction
C. Cardio pulmonary resuscitation
D. Cardio preliminary Resurrection.
100. Mock drill related to train accident is conducted to check the preparedness of all branches of Railway-
A. Of all branches of Railway immediately after a train accident at accident spot.
B. Of Senior officers only in a meeting hall.
C. Under hypothetical or imaginative situation at any railway area like Railway track, Railway Bridges, Railway premises, Railway yard etc.
D. None of the above.
* * * * *
Question No - Key
1 A 51 A
2 C 52 D
3 D 53 A
4 C 54 C
5 D 55 B
6 B 56 A
7 C 57 A
8 D 58 A
9 B 59 C
10 C 60 D
11 B 61 C
12 D 62 B
13 C 63 D
14 C 64 B
15 D 65 C
16 D 66 A
17 A 67 D
18 A 68 C
19 C 69 B
20 D 70 C
21 B 71 A
22 A 72 A
23 A 73 C
24 C 74 A
25 A 75 b
26 C 76 B
27 A 77 A
28 A 78 B
29 T 79 D
30 F 80 D
31 A 81 A
32 A 82 B
33 C 83 A
34 A 84 A
35 A 85 A
36 C 86 C
37 A 87 B
38 D 88 A
39 A 89 C
40 B 90 D
41 A 91 B
42 A 92 B
43 C 93 D
44 D 94 C
45 D 95 A
46 A 96 B
47 B 97 D
48 A 98 C
49 D 99 B
50 C 100 C
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